March 23, 2007

… does tailoring produce?

Filed under: Miscellaneous

A passage from Marx. (As in, “here is a passage from Marx,” not as in “What in the hell does tailoring produce? Tailoring produces a passage from Marx.”) Or: tailoring, what’s the use?

Early in Capital volume 1 Marx undertakes an exposition of what he calls the simple, isolated or accidental form of value. This form has two sides or moments - the relative and the equivalent. The relatives is a commodity whose value is expressed in units of another commodity. The equivalent expresses the value of another commodity. Marx’s example is linen and coats. If one is concerned with the value of linen and expresses it in coats, linen is the relative and coat is the equivalent. This equation also equates the labor involved in the production of linen and coats. To equate linen and coats (to express the value of linen in coats) is to equate weaving and tailoring. More specifically, it is to equate these “specific and useful concrete labour[s]” in such a way which treats them as “the expression of abstract human labour,” human labor in general. As a concrete labor, tailoring produces a coat as a use value. As abstract labor, tailoring produces a commodity which is the equivalent to others as being products of abstract labor. When the coat serves as the equivalent, expressing the value of another commodity, then

“the usefulness of the tailoring consists, not in making clothes, and thus also people, but in making a physical object, which we at once recognise as value, as a congealed quantity of labour, therefore, which is indistinguishable from the labour objectified in the value of the linen.” (Page 150 in the Penguin edition.)

I find this line striking. Tailoring and the product of tailoring, the coat, serves to express the value of weaving and the product of weaving, linen. This expression (of the linen’s value by the coat) is a “usefulness.” Since “[t]he usefulness of a thing makes it a use-value” (126), the capacity of the coat to serve as the equivalent form for the commodity linen (the capacity to express the value of linen) is one use value or one aspect of the use value of the coat. (Use value is always multiple for Marx, which is part of what makes it such an interesting category. “Every useful thing is a whole composed of many properties: it can therefore be useful in various ways.” 125.)

This connects to a longstanding question for me about the relationship between use value and exchange value. (Digging up stuff from an old post)

“Use is the activity (by some actor), use value is the potential (of something other than the actor) to enter into that activity. So, labor power as a commodity has, for the capitalists, the use value of being producing more value than its purchased price (the wage), when it is used. (If used successfully, judged from the capitalist perspective. Not a foregone conclusion but a continual matter of conflict.) In this sense, exchange value is a subset of use value, and one which serves to help police other use values from being made use of (ie, any that don’t entail submitting to labor and money). (…)

Use values are relative to actors, of course - the use value of a free blogging site for bloggers might include a sense of connection, a feeling of self-importance, a chance to show off, a chance to try and write better, a way to meet people, something to do other than work while in an office, etc. The use value for employers might include employees who write better, get material published more often, know material better, etc (particularly for those of us whose employers are universities). The use value for the people hosting the site might include advertising revenue, some sense of pride in being a popular site, etc. All of these relate to each other in different ways, of course, some of them potentially antagonistically.”

This means that I think “there’s not an antagonism between use value as such and exchange value, but rather between some use values and exchange value. (…) I think exchange value is a species of use value (…) exchange value is a character in the stage play who at first appears to be one thing and is later unveiled to be another different but related thing.” (from here. See also here on necessary labor in Marx’s economic manuscrips of 1861-63. In a nutshell, I think exchange value is contained within use value as a category. The difference between use value and exchange value is that between a general determination and a specific determination which is a subcategory of the more general, like “book” and “red book”. So there’s no conflict between between exchange value and use value, no more than there is between “red book” and “book”. Rather, the conflict is between that use value called exchange value and other use value[s], or more to the point between different users.)

Leaving aside exchange value and use value, getting back to the quote I started from:

When the coat is the equivalent (expression of value) for the linen, “the usefulness of the tailoring consists, not in making clothes, and thus also people, but in making a physical object, which we at once recognise as value, as a congealed quantity of labour, therefore, which is indistinguishable from the labour objectified in the value of the linen.”

There are two other things I want to comment on here.

First, tailoring in producing clothes produces people. This is an instance in Marx’s writing where one can see production of people, social relations, subjectivity - that which Hardt and Negri call biopolitical production. For Marx here this quality is part of tailoring as concrete labor, not as abstract labor. The making of persons is not part of exchange value or of making labors equivalent. I would say that exchange value and equation is a making of persons and subjectivity as well (this is one way to describe marxist writings on alienation and ideology) but I think the difference is that capitalist making of persons is a sort of (attempt at) top down molding of people, an attempt at determination of people. On the the other hand the making of persons within broader use value of concrete labors is, like concrete labor and concrete products, a multiple. Use value and the concrete is a place where under- or un-determination appears in Marx’s work, as with the object satisfying “needs of whatever [irgendeiner] kind.” (125.)

Second, when the coat is the equivalent to the linen, the labor in the coat is indistinguishable from the labor in the linen. This is not the same as saying the two are identical. Identity could be said to be an ontological matter (”A really is A”), whereas (in)distinguishability is an epistemological or standpoint matter. (”We treat A as if…” See notes on the ‘as if‘ in Kant and on indifference. Additional references to standpoint, indifference, and counting-as on p125, 154, 155, 159, 160.) Abstract labor is labor viewed from a perspective which is indifferent to some determinations of that labor, it is not labor which really lacks all determinations. (Note in German, “indistinguishable” is “nicht unterscheidet” - not different or differentiated from.)

In this case, coat as equivalent for linen, “this concrete labour, tailoring, counts exclusively as the expression of undifferentiated labour.” In German this is “diese konkrete Arbeit, die Schneiderei, als bloßer Ausdruck unterschiedsloser menschlicher Arbeit gilt.” I like the pairing of bloß and counting-as (gilt), which suggests a possible line to follow connecting bare life and abstract labor, and a similar tension in Agamben and Marx (or instead of tension, a tendency or temptation where they sometimes seem to ontologize something and at others to historicize it).

I find Marx ambiguous on abstract labor. He cites Aristotle, book five of the Nicomachean Ethics. Marx quotes Aristotle as saying that while exchange does equate things and therefore render them commensurable, “It is, however, in reality impossible that such unlike things can be commensurable”, commensurable meaning as Marx adds “qualitatively equal.” Marx continues, “[t]his form of equation can only be something foreign to the true nature of things” for Aristotle, for whom commensurability is (Marx quotes Aristotle again) “a makeshift for practical purposes.” (151.)

I looked very briefly through book five in the Ross and the Rackham translations of the Nicomachean Ethics and I didn’t find the ‘makeshift’ line. I may have just missed it, as I didn’t look very slowly or carefully. The closest I found is:

“in truth it is impossible that things differing so much should become commensurate, but with reference to demand they may become so sufficiently. There must, then, be a unit, and that fixed by agreement (for which reason it is called money)” (Ross.)

“Though therefore it is impossible for things so different to become commensurable in the strict sense,our demand furnishes a sufficiently accurate common measure for practical purposes. There must therefore be some one standard, and this accepted by agreement (which is why it is called nomisma, customary currency).” (Rackham. The Penguin edition of Capital [p151] cites the 1926 Loeb edition of the Nicomachean Ethics, which is I believe an edition of the Rackham translation. See commentaries on Marx and Aristotle at the Archive, Roughtheory, and Unemployed Negativity.)

Even if I’ve just missed the ‘makeshift for practical purposes’ line, I think the same point is made in these quotes. Marx quotes Aristotle as distinguishing between a real or true level at which commensurability is not (to which commensurability does not belong or to which it does violence) and another practical, customary, conventional level at which commensurability exists in acts of commensurating, of equating.

Marx then asks “What is the homogeneous element, i.e, the common substance” in commensuration which Aristotle says “in truth, cannot exist”? He answers, “human labour.” (151.) It’s not clear to me if Marx is saying there really is a something called human labor in general, in the sense of stepping outside of some perspective and indicating humanity which is a-perspectically there, perhaps as a sort of philosophical anthropology. I’m open to that when it serves a deflationary function - indicating a power of flight, a possibility for (worlds formed by) encounters to come to an end - but I get more hesitant when it’s posed positively, some qualities of humanness as such which all labor contains (like in some of Virno’s recent work). Marx does write that this common quality, abstract general human labor, is the result of “the reduction of all kinds of human labour to their common character (…) of being the expenditure of human labour-power.” (159-160.)

It’s not clear to me if Marx takes this as a counting-as or as a quality of labor. Of course, for some X to be able to be counted-as-Y that X must have the quality of being countable-as-Y, but that’s trivially true. And to dwell on the countable-as-Y quality of X (the abstract human labor aspects of concrete labor) is to prejudge whether (and to obscure when and how) the count-as-Y does or does not occur. Put differently, I don’t like the language of ’substance’ in Marx’s rhetorical question to Aristotle. Abstract labor shouldn’t be thought of as substance but as process or perspective upon concrete labors.

7 Comments »

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  1. I’d recommend Postone, also Rubin, on abstract labour.

    Comment by s0metim3s — March 24, 2007 @ 12:23 am

  2. Thanks Angela. Those are both on my list (near the top actually). Does Pashukanis talk about abstraction? I remember you once commenting that you saw something in common with the state/citizen and either waged labor or abstract labor. This is years ago in an email, I can’t fully recall.
    take care,
    n8

    Comment by Nate — March 24, 2007 @ 6:37 pm

  3. Note to self, on use value as multiple. The following quote is relevant from the Grundrisse:

    “The concrete is concrete because it is the concentration of many determinations, hence unity of the diverse. It appears in the process of thinking, therefore, as a process of concentration, as a result, not as a point of departure, even though it is the point of departure in reality and hence also the point of departure for observation and conception.”

    Comment by Nate — March 25, 2007 @ 12:43 am

  4. I think Marx’s definition of abstract labour is sociological, not metaphysical, and definitely specific to capitalism. It presupposes that the labour in question is performed to make commodities for sale, and therefore that the labour process itself is determined by the fact that each enterprise is in competition with other enterprises. So the labour will be ’socially necessary’ both in the sense that it is creating a commodity some other part of society wants and can pay for (competition between industries making different commodities), and in the sense that other competing enterprises making the same commodity cannot do it much more efficiently (competition within industries). The competition side of the story is as essential as the labour side in defining abstract labour. Therefore, a quantity of abstract labour can be seen as a part of the total amount of labour time society as a whole spends on making commodities. Incidentally, the fact that competition happens at an enterprise level means, I think, that abstract labour is collective - ie, you can’t apply it to the labour of any particular individual.

    Comment by Mike Beggs — March 26, 2007 @ 1:36 am

  5. hi Mike,
    I don’t think Marx’s metaphysical either, though I wonder sometimes. I find his discussion of Aristotle close to that. (Aristotle can’t understand labor because he lives in a slave society? Furthermore, no one in Aristotle’s society could understand labor, including those who labored? Sounds fishy to me.) Certainly when he’s at his best he’s not anyway. I’m also not sure about the competition part. I’m more concerned with the command over labor involved in the sale of labor power, in its use once purchased, and in the creation (and continual recreation) of labor power as something which is for sale. I think this existed under so-called Communist regimes as well (I’m invested in the view of those as state capitalists), where there wasn’t competition of the same order. I also don’t read socially necessary the way you do. I read that, in socially necessary labor time, to refer to efficiency in terms of the amount of time required to produce an object. One of the ironies - crimes! - of capitalism is that even though production times drop, work time doesn’t (or doesn’t for some, while other can’t find jobs). Low production times are great, makes more wealth and less work time possible for all possible. Decreasing SNLT is good in that sense. The problem is that under capitalism that also generally means devaluation and lower wages. I’m agreement with this: “abstract labour is collective - ie, you can’t apply it to the labour of any particular individual.”
    take care,
    Nate

    Comment by Nate — March 27, 2007 @ 3:26 am

  6. Hi Nate,

    I must admit that the Aristotelian connection is outside my area of specialisation, and my reading is an economic one. I do remember reading a few years ago a long article by Cornelius Castoriadis comparing Marx and Aristotle on value which might be worth finding, though I don’t remember much of what it said.

    I think in a centrally planned regime like the Soviet Union the division of labour does not take the form of value as Marx conceived it, to the extent that production is planned in terms of use-values (eg. a certain quantity of steel is directed to be produced to meet the steel input demands of other sectors, it is not motivated by price mechanisms). To the extent that the Soviet bloc was integrated into world markets, capitalist value relations had an impact, but where profit considerations did not allocate capital I don’t think you can say value relations predominated. Obviously, though, this is not to make a judgement that Soviet work relations were more desirable.

    I’ll try and explain why I think competition between capitals in different industries is essential in determining the social necessity of different kinds of labour. Here I am talking about the process described by Marx in Volume 3, by which the profit rate tends to be equalised across industries because high rates of profit will draw capital into a sector and low rates will push it out. This clearly has implications for the allocation of labour power, because labour will be employed in different sectors to the extent to which capital moves into them, depending also of course on the composition of capital in each sector.

    This is vitally important to the aspect of socially necessary labour time that you are talking about, “efficiency in terms of the amount of time required to produce an object”, because this depends on the labour process generally used to produce a particular commodity, which depends on the capital goods in use. This in turn depends not only on technical efficiency, but on the profitability of capital in that industry. For example, Ford’s car production techniques were technologically possible long before he applied them, but were previously socially impossible. Cars could be made more cheaply with capital-intensive assembly line organisation, but this required that they be made on a much larger scale, and cars could not yet be sold profitably on that scale.

    Note that effective demand also enters here into the concept of ‘socially necessary labour time’. This isn’t much commented on, but I think it is implicit in these sections of Volume 3. It is here that use value (in human consumption as well as in productive consumption) seems to come back as a determinant of demand (and therefore social necessity, and therefore abstract labour). I think Marx anticipates Marshall’s concept of price elasticity. Unfortunately my copy of vol. 3 with all the underlining is at home and I can’t find the relevant bit online – will fill in later if you’re interested.

    So I see value as the mechanism by which labour power is allocated to production of different commodities in a capitalist society, and even though Marx begins in Volume 1 with the determinants of value from below – labour time spent – this is itself simultaneously determined from above by inter-capitalist relations. It is on this basis that he criticises Ricardo’s ‘labour time embodied’ conception of value.

    Comment by Mike Beggs — March 27, 2007 @ 4:21 am

  7. I was also going to recommend the Castoriadis reading of Marx and Aristotle. The article is called ‘Value, Equality, Justice Politics: From Marx to Aristotle and Aristotle to Ourselves’ - it appeared as an appendix in Crossroads of the Labyrinth.

    Castoriadis’ argument is in line with his claim that Marx’s writing is full of antinomies that his adherents wrap themselves into knots trying to resolve. Castoriadis cites Marx’s work as important, but not prophetic, and hence full of the contradictory complexity of human thought, especially human thought at the level of Marx’s. He says that Marx offers contradictory understandings of ’simple, socially necessary abstract labour’ that make it both a product of the social and a product of nature. He can never resolve if abstract labour is of the nomos or the physis.

    Castoriadis goes on to argue that value is better understood from the Aristotelian view: a makeshift for practical purpose (which my own investigations would appear to be a quirk of Marx’s own translation, based on the line you cite above: “on an agreed upon basis”). At the same time, Aristotle was similarly trapped by the nomos-physis contradiction: is the just a product of nature or of social convention?

    Thanks for the blog entry.

    Comment by dtc — March 21, 2009 @ 10:31 am

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